From: Richard Wordingham
> >If all Latin words with non-ablauting /a/ are borrowed, then allafter
> >Latin words with <ca-> are borrowed. But the occurrence of /a/
> >supposed plain velars in Latin was the main argument for thethe
> >existence of those plain velars in PIE! So:
> >Plain velars don't exist!
> (b) The main argument for the existence of plain velars in PIE is
> correspondence:That argument on its own, of course, relies on Satem *not* being a
> Centum /k/ ~ Satem /k/
> It has nothing to do with the vowel that follows.
> (a) A number of ca- words in Latin show an impeccable PIE pedigree,eg capio
> ~ Germanic have.And if one looks in Pokorny, one will find Sanskrit, Old Persian,
> canis ~ kuo:n in Greek.Hardly a regular correspondence! I didn't think it was even