From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 30199
Date: 2004-01-28
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:The first thing I suppose is possible, the second thing is unfounded.
>> On Wed, 28 Jan 2004 12:12:11 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
>> wrote:
>>
>> >On the question of palatal vs palatalised (now I can't find the
>> >thread) I think palatalised must mean something that can be de-
>> >palatalised (unlike palatal), it must have a rubber band attached;
>> >which is: participation in a paradigm in which that sound (velar)
>> >alternates between palatalised and non-palatal,
>>
>> Not necessarily. And certainly not in the case of PIE *k and *k^,
>which do
>> not alternate significantly.
>
>You misunderstand me. I am suggesting that so-called palatal PIE *k^
>once alternated between (eg.) /k/ and /k'/ (or /c^/) in the
>appropiate contexts, from which state of affairs it was
>regularised/generalised to either a non-alternating /k/ (in the
>centum languages) or a non-alternating /k'/ (in the satem languages,
>from which it developed > /c^/ > /s^/ etc), and that so-called plain
>PIE *k occurs only in loans into PIE from Old European which is a
>para-/pre-IE language in central Europe.
>> It's simply a question of articulation. For a palatal stop, theNo. I'm talking standard phonetic terminology.
>closure is
>> made at the hard palate by the front of the tongue. For a
>palatalized
>> stop, the closure is made at the appropriate labial, coronal or
>radical
>> locus, but simultaneously the front of the tongue is raised towards
>the
>> hard palate (as in producing the vowel /i/). For coronal and
>radical
>> (velar/uvular) stops, this does affect the place of articulation
>somewhat
>> (/t'/ is usually more back than /t/, /k'/ is more front than /k/),
>but the
>> gesture is quite distinct from that of a palatal stop.
>>
>
>You're talking Slavic languages here