Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

27-01-04 23:59, Mate Kapović wrote:

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Piotr Gasiorowski" <piotr.gasiorowski@...>
> To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Tuesday, January 27, 2004 11:40 AM
> Subject: Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))
>
>> As for */x'/, it may have existed as a short-lived phoneme derived from
>> *hj (h = any laryngeal) in some positions (always when word-initial and
>> also syllable-initially as proposed by Pinnault [1982]). This explains
>> the absence of prothetic vowels before *j in Greek.
>
> So do you agree with the theory that *Hy- gives #z- in Greek as opposed to
> *y- which gives #h-?

I have no strong opinion either way (look as hard as I can, I can't see
a laryngeal in *jugom), but I wasn't claiming that */x'/ and *j must
have given different reflexes. Perhaps laryngeals were simply lost in
syllable onsets when followed by *j.

Piotr