The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Glen Gordon" <glengordon01@...>
wrote:

>
> Mate:
> >Than how do you explain the difference of Luwian and Hittite?

There was *q

> >~
> >*k and later, when the Anatolian departed from IE the Luwians

decided to

> >change the *q to *k and *k to *k' whatta coincidence the same as

some other

> >lgs did independantly later?
>
> Actually if you look at Anatolian as a dialect area with a

_blurry_ boundary

> across
> which isoglosses and areal influences continue to travel and shape

the

> branch,
> both centum influences on one end and satem influences on the

other, then

> it's not so bizarre or unaccountable. This is in fact how normal

languages

> develop, not by this robotic split and fracture scenario that you

almost

> dare
> paint here.

At which end do you propose Centum influences, and at which end the
Satem influences? I though only the Western end was in contact with
non-Anatolian IE.

Richard.