Re: [tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 29810
Date: 2004-01-19

On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 12:34:53 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
wrote:

>To me at least, some varieties of Spanish <-g-> sounds like /G/ or
>even /?/ (I think I've heard /Tara?oTa/ for <Zaragoza>).

Like all voiced stops, Spanish /g/ is realized as a continuant everywhere
except in absolute initial position and after nasal.

>Could this
>variation have played a role in /yo/ > /igo/ (after /l^o/ > /lyo/
>and /n^o/ > /nyo/?

No. The -g- was apparently introduced after hago, perhaps by an analogy
similar to the one that brought about ven^o -> vengo. Lat. faceo would
have given *hayo (regular) ~ hago (yod-deletion) [cf. the subjunctive
faceat > haya, vulg. haiga], and then also cayo ~ caigo. The insertion of
-g- only occurs if the stem vowel is /a/ or /o/. If the vowel is /i/ or
/e/, /j/ is simply deleted (video > veyo > veo, credeo > creyo > creo,
rideo > riyo > río).

Catalan doesn't have g-insertion in faceo > faig "I do", despite the
spelling (pron. /fac^/, in my dialect /fai/, from */fai3^/).

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...