[tied] Re: Saxon wanum "bright"

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> > > As far a I know, the only I.-E. etymology that has been
> > > suggested for Gk. (w)anax is the same *wnh1- that Piotr
> mentioned.
> > > If so, the Vanir have lots of cognates. However, more likely
> > > (w)anax isn't I.E. at all, but a pre-Greek title retained by

the

> > > Myceneans, in which case a connection to the Vanir seems
> extremely
> > > unlikely.
> > > Dan
> >
> > But I always affirmed that Gr. (w)anaks isn't IE. It IS a pre-

Greek

> > word. And I never said that Vanir belong to IE world.
>
> That is an interesting theory. If <Vanir> does not belong to the IE
> world, then the word is not something the Germani made up

themselves.

> It must then belong to the world of some other language family. In
> the real world. Now I wonder what kind of language and what

language

> family that would be? I will have to warn you, Marco, against
> following this thought through to its logical conclusion or you'll
> find yourself moderated.

I think that pre-IE Germanic belongs to North Caucasian (not to
Kartvelian that is unrelated), but I have still insufficient
evidence, and many items are at this moment extremely difficult to
analyze. But my suspicions don't come from picking up words here and
there. There were probably different languages. As for me a North
Caucasian-related language in Scandinavia, and probalby a Basque-like
language in the continent (distantly related to the former).
The problem is that I need more time to elaborate something
convincing and based on scientific criteria.

> >But a remote
> > connection between pre-IE Germ. /*wan-/ and pre-Greek /*wan-/ is
> not
> > so implausible.
>
> True. And the remoter, the more plausible?

> >We find some substratum roots occurring in huge areas
> > of Europe, from Spain to Baltic. In pre-IE times there were many
> > languages, some related each other and some other isolated.
> >
>
> I see. So <Vanir> is now a substrate word in Germanic? Have you, in
> the course of your studies, found a possible match for a

hypothetical

> non-IE *wan- (you might want to check the archives)?
>
> I am glad to see you excellent theory grow strong now that unfair
> competition has been removed.
>
> Torsten

The source of Vanir is North East Caucasian, not Kartvelian. I had
many doubts in the past, but now the interference of
Saxon /wa:num/, /wa:nam-/ was removed ad I can reaffirm an old thory
of mine. I think that the ultimate source, found also in
Etruscan /Vanth/ is a verbal root meaning "to speak". Semantic shift
would be clear: /Vanth/ = Fatum; /(w)anaks/ < "who gives orders".

Bast wishes

Marco