[tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

From: tgpedersen
Message: 29795
Date: 2004-01-19

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
> On Sun, 18 Jan 2004 14:55:50 +0100, g <george.st@...> wrote:
>
> >(a) in North-Western areas of the DR dialect, people tend to
> >use a [g] instead of [d], in the 1st person: eu tung (but then
> >the conjugation is the same: tunzi, tunde, tundem, tundetzi
> >and... I'm not 100% sure but I'd say again: tung). This phon.
> >curiosity reminds me something typical of the Bavarian (i.e.
> >incl. Austrian) Wangl < Wandl (< die Wand) "wall", that've
> >prompted in the Hungarian bowling slang the term "vángli"
> >(< South German Wangl "li'l wall", here in the sense: the
> >ball rolled outa the path touching the wall). :-))
>
> It's also reminiscent of Italian, Spanish and Occitan/Catalan first
persons
> in -go (-c).
>
> In Italian, these are the result of analogy after verbs in -ng-
and -lg-,
> which had a paradigm:
>
> plango colgo
> plan^e col^e
>
> Other verbs with /n^/ or /l^/ in the first person, such as ven^o,
pon^o,
> val^o, sal^o, acquired variants vengo, pongo, valgo, salgo, even if
the
> source of the analogy was later regularized to plan^o, col^o, etc.
>
> In Spanish, the same verbs are affected (vengo, pongo, valgo,
salgo), plus
> some other ones that used to have a 1st.sg. in -yo (cadeo > cayo >
caigo,
> audeo > oyo > oigo, traheo > trayo > traigo).
>
> In Catalan, the ending -go > -c has acquired an even greater
extension, as
> it applies to all verbs in -ndre (< -nere, -ndere), -ldre (-lere), -
ler
> (-lé:re: except voler, which has jo vull), all verbs with a
diphthong (from
> Latin -cere, -gere [-c regular here], -tere, -dere, -vere, -bere,
such as
> placere > plaure plac, credere > creure crec, bibere > beure bec,
ridere >
> riure ric, sedere > seure sec, videre > veure vec, debere > deure
dec,
> scribere > escriure escric, etc.), and some other ones (estar
estic, poder
> puc, ésser sóc, etc.). The 1st. sg. present ind. of tondre in
Catalan is
> tonc.
>

To me at least, some varieties of Spanish <-g-> sounds like /G/ or
even /?/ (I think I've heard /Tara?oTa/ for <Zaragoza>). Could this
variation have played a role in /yo/ > /igo/ (after /l^o/ > /lyo/
and /n^o/ > /nyo/?

Torsten