[tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:

>>> I doubt that "rade" is an inherited verb..
>>
>> So, in your hypercompetent opinion, what would be the normal
>> result of Latin "ra:dere" in Romanian if inherited?
>
> I should have expected here "a rãdea" as pan-romanian

You would be wrong. 2nd Romanian conjugation (the less stable
one) continuates Latin verbs with infinitive in -e:re (long /e/,
thus stressed, as well as Romanian ending -eá). Latin verbs with
infinitive form in -ere (short /e/, thus unstressed) are usually
mapped in Romanian 3rd conjugation verbs in (unstressed) -e.
Some analogical changes are still possible, but the mainstream
is given above.

> Or is "a rade" a hyperrcorection?

No.

>>> It seems is a loan and I compare with the verb "a rãzui" but
>>> this one appears to be derivative from "raz" (crowbar, blade,
>>> etc) , cf DEX < SerboCroatin "raz"
>>
>> Why not compare with "ridere" > "râde"?!
>
> For phonologicaly issue you can compare all 3.

No. You cannot compare two inherited words with a late Romanian
formation on a Slavic loanword. Different rules apply on different
times and different originations.

> For semantical issues, one can compare just "a rade" with "a rãzui"

To get... ?!

> For my taste, "râ-" ist most ancient, "rã-" newer, "ra-"= most new.

You have bad taste. Stressed Latin /a/ normally remains /a/. There
is no "rule" about newer or older word because of /a/ or /&/.

Marius Iacomi