Re: [tied] Latin pinso etc.

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:

> Richard Wordingham wrote:
>
>> A Classical form <pinsatum> (whose existence I am not sure of)
>> would yield Romanian *pisat.
>
> why should be reduced the "ns" group to "s"

Why on earth aren't you able to make a note on some agenda when
a topic is cleared out, for not asking the _same_ questions again
and again?! The /ns/ > /s/ topic has been already discussed with
Latin word for `snake`: it is an ancient feature of Latin, as you
could notice even from Rosetti's ILR (about Latin phonetics) if
you hate yahoogroups search function.

> One more question for Latin. How is to explain the participium
> in "s" here?

Analogy with other verbal forms containing /s/.

> I am sure there is no explanation of phonetical -geo > -ns

Well, since there is no -geo > -ns evolution (only analogical
substitution), nobody tries to "explain" something inexistent.

> Is this just in Latin to observe ( explanation?) or is this in
> other IE languages to observe too?

Analogy acts everywhere.

Marius Iacomi