change

From: alex
Message: 26343
Date: 2003-10-11

which is the explanation for changing of "mb" to ""ng" in Old French if
the Latin word have had "mb" and the celtic word (the Latin word is
assumed to be borrowed from Celtic) have had "mb" too?
I am speaking here about english "change" from Late Latin "cambire" via
Old French "changier" ultimately from PIE *(s)kemb- /*kamb.
In fact I wonder for this mb > ng since I was aware just of "ng" > "mb"
due labialisation of the cluster.

Alex