Re: Re[2]: [tied] Glen, regarding...

From: Andy Howey
Message: 26307
Date: 2003-10-09

Jo�o:
 
I don't know if that's such a good example.  The only reason the French have trouble pronouncing "th" is because they don't have that sound in their native language.  They can learn to pronounce it, IF they want to learn.  Likewise with Germans and "w".  The same applies to Filipinos trying to pronounce "f" or "v".  Those sounds aren't part of their native inventory, so most Filipinos TEND to pronounce "f" as "p" and "v" as "b".  With more exposure, they eventually are able to use the correct pronunciation, and, among Filipino immigrant families to the U.S., that pronunciation difficulty typically doesn't occur with the children.
 
Andy Howey

Jo�o_Sim�es_Lopes_Filho <josimo70@...> wrote:
But, for example, French have difficult in pronnounce English "th". If a hypothetical French community that is annexed by an English-languaged country, is it not plausible that this population will maintain a shift T > s, or f, or alike?
 
Joao
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, October 09, 2003 11:03 AM
Subject: Re[2]: [tied] Glen, regarding...

At 9:45:29 AM on Thursday, October 9, 2003, Patrick C. Ryan
wrote:

> Let us take a concrete example. If a certain segment of a
> population substitutes a fricative (/f/) for an aspirated
> stop (/pH/), we can make one of two basic assumptions:
> that segment finds it difficult (or impossible) to
> replicate /pH/; or that segment does not properly hear
> /pH/, and cannot distinguish it from /f/. Both scenarios
> imply physical causes.

No, they don't.

Brian




Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to the Yahoo! Terms of Service.


Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to the Yahoo! Terms of Service.