> There is ample material reflecting aspirated tenues from the wholeI have to disagree. Unless, of course, you can come up with
> range of IE. The superstition that /th/ etc. is non-existent is
> based on nothing but an undignified consensus to turn a blind eye
> on the relevant evidence.
> So, /th, t, d/ instead of /t, d, dh/, in that order? That is,No. Aspiration in Greek, Sanskrit, and probably Italic were
> Sanskrit /t/, Greek /t/ were aspirated, and Sanskrit /dh/,
> Greek /th/ were unaspirated?? Can you really mean that?
> > Such a system would be typologicallyCorrect, but such a three way distinction exists.
> > acceptable (it's found in Ancient Greek).
> - but not in that order.
> The second point is very wrong: Why would your *t take on voice in??? Unvoiced stops cannot become voiced?
> Indo-Iranian, Greek, Italo-Celtic, Albanian and Balto-Slavic?
> And why would it behave as a lenis in Anatolian? And why would yourThis is only partially true in Indo-Iranian because some aspiration
> *d take on aspiration in Indo-Iranian, Greek and Italic while your
> *th distinctively [!] loses its aspiration in the same languages?
> Why would there be vowel lengthening in Balto-Slavic before yourOne could equally ask why, in the Traditional interpretation, there
> *t, but not before your *d and *th?
> And why would Indic, Greek and Tocharian dissimilate *dVd to *tVd,Why shouldn't it?
> while keeping *thVth intact?
> And why would *tVt be banned in the root structure?There is no such ban, except possibly as a ban against identical
> This surely explains none of the problems raised by the actualIt explains the typological problems more easily than the Glottalic
> The typological defects of PIE are mended if /th/ is added, andThere are mainly three areas where aspirates occur: when preceeded by
> there are enough etymologies to demand this. The voiceless
> aspirates are far less frequent than the other series, but so they
> are in Sanskrit, which still must have existed in the shape we know
> The traditional phonetic values must have been reached at some pointThe vowel system is a whole other can of worms.
> *before* the dissolution of PIE, since there was time to integrate
> a few examples of initial /b-/. I suppose this also explains the
> modest number of roots with other vowels than /e/.