Re: [tied] Timing of ablaut

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 25934
Date: 2003-09-22

On Sun, 21 Sep 2003 17:27:18 +0000, elmeras2000 <jer@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:
>
>> Sanskrit (and one or two other languages) shows signs of
>laryngeals in its
>> earliest stages. In particular for your purposes, ablauting -o-
>is treated
>> differently from -o- < -h3e- /-eh3-. The ablauting -o- appears
>long in an
>> open syllable, whereas the laryngeal-coloured -o- does not. This
>means that
>> the two main sources of -o- in IE languages were still distinct in
>Sanskrit.
>> Wovel colouring may therefore be quite late.
>
>Not so: Even if the o's of *H3ów-i-s and *dór-u sounded differently
>at the time Brugmann's law operated (which I do not believe was the
>case, but still, IF), it does not follow that vowel coloration was
>post-PIE.

I don't think that was claimed: "quite late" does not equal "post-PIE".

>*All* IE languages reflect full coloration of /e/ by /H2/
>and /H3/, thee only thing left to quarrel about is whether the
>result of H3-coloured */e/ was identical with /o/ from other
>sources. However, the whole business is a mirage: The
>unlengthened /a/ of Sanskrit ávis is no more of a special case than,
>say, the unlengthened /a/ of pátis vs. Gk. pósis.

But e.g. apas- is.


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...