[tied] Re: Rom. TâTã (breast)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Mon, 25 Aug 2003 10:34:25 +0000, m_iacomi <m_iacomi@...> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" wrote:
> >
> >> Basque "titia" does not appear to be a loan from Latin "*tit[t]

ia"

> >> either - see, for example, Miguel's account at
> >> <http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Nostratic-L/message/44>.
> >
> > I had a look on the article but I didn't found anything

preventing

> >Basque "titia" from being a Latin loanword, maybe Miguel would be

so

> >kind and make his point on this.
>
> The Basque word is <titi> (-a is the definite article). There is

nothing

> preventing it being a borrowing from Latin *tittia (which would

have given

> Basque diti or titi [there is indeed a northern form

dithi "teat"]), but it

> may equally well be an independent expressive formation in Basque

itself.

1. In a very early loan, initial t- would subsequently be lost in
Basque.
2. In later loans, Latin t- is borrowed as d-, and thus, unless
there is a problem with the "h", _dithi_ is fine.
3. Later still, Latin *ti(:)ttia has become titsa or tetsa. Could
that be borrowed as _titi_? I presumed not.

Are you saying that there a window between stages 2 and 3 in which
*ti(:)ttia could be borrowed as _titi_?

Richard.