Re: [tied] Re: German "ge-" before participe perfect

At 7:47:40 AM on Wednesday, August 6, 2003, tgpedersen
wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer
> <mcv@...> wrote:


>> When did the periphrastic perfect arise in Scandinavian?

> Peter Skautrup: 'Det danske sprogs historie' doesn't treat
> that question explicitly, but I found among his examples:
> 'iak ællær mini forældræ hafa fangit af Tinni iorTo øras
> land' from Skånske lov, which is based on a source in the
> period 1170 - 1216. This is also one of the earliest
> written Danish sources, so no terminus post quem to be
> deduced there.

There are examples in Ari Þorgilsson's Libellus Islandorum,
written between 1122 and 1133; three in this sentence alone:

En þá er hann hafði verit einn vetr eða tvá, þá fór hann
á braut, ok hafði vegit hér tvá menn eða þrjá, þá er hann
höfðu nítt.

It must predate the literary period.

Brian