If the aspirated form was BSl.-IIr. (Core Satem), it was also pre-
Slavic. And if the unaspirated form was Slavic, it surely was also
pre-Slavic and Bsl.-IIr. (presuming there is such a thing). It
simply amounts to saying that BSl.(-IIr.) had not made up its mind
but had both forms. That's explaining things by lack of explanation.
Jens
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" <richard@...>
wrote:
> What's the argument against Balto-Slavo-Indo-Iranian *h1eg^H(om),
thus
> avoiding Winter's law, with Slavic exceptionally retaining the
archaic form
> *h1eg(om)?