[tied] Re: Creole Romance? [was: Thracian , summing up]

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Mon, 23 Jun 2003 22:08:43 +0200, alex <alxmoeller@...> wrote:
>
> >Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:
> >> What do Meillet's informal and obviously hyperbolic dicta have

to do

> >> with what I said about French inflectional morphology? The other
> >> opinions you cited are equally irrelevant. The topic was the

origin of

> >> French, not linguistic snobbery or the social perception of

French

> >> dialects. The fact that speakers of Parisian French were

reluctant to

> >> regard the Midi varieties as truly French has absolutely nothing

to do

> >> with what we are discussing. Try to stick to the topic.
> >>
> >I find your question rhetorical.
>
> There's only on equestion in teh above: "What do Meillet's informal

and

> obviously hyperbolic dicta have to do with what I said about French
> inflectional morphology?". Of course it's rhetorical. Your non-

sequiturs

> had nothing whatsoever to do with anything Piotr had said before.
>
> >You speak about the morphologie and
> >gramair of Frnech being Latin. I guess Miguel can tell you more

about.

>
> Piotr said: "French inflectional morphology is of Latin origin,
> and none of it is Gaulish." That is 100 % correct.
>
> >Ther I just will say as follow:
> >
> >Au XII ème siècle, l'occitan est langue littéraire, juridique et
> >administrative, il côtoie le latin dans les textes religieux et
> >scientifiques. La graphie et la grammaire sont une adaptation du

latin".

>
> More irrelevancies. Occitan, like French --and Romanian-- is a

daughter

> language of Latin. It is not a pidgin, not a creole, and it

doesn't have

> Gaulish morphology, so the existence of Occitan has no relevance to

the

> present topic of discussion, except perhaps very obliquely by the

fact that

> it was --and in certain circles still is-- considered a "patois"

(one might

> say a "pidgin French"), and that the fascist linguistic policies

following

> on from Grégoire's 1794 report ("Rapport sur la necessité et les

moyens

> d'anéantir les patois et d'universaliser l'usage de la langue

française")

> indeed tried to do to Occitan --but this time purposefully-- what

Latin had

> earlier done to Gaulish.
>
>

Hm! Given their similar political situations, would you call Catalan
a "Spanish pidgin"?

Torsten