Re: Moment

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "m_iacomi" <m_iacomi@...> wrote:

> In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" wrote:
>
> >>> Can't one argue that speakers of 'Ladin' still speak Latin?

After

> >>> all, we could say that the Anglo-Saxons spoke English, but Old
> >>> English and Modern English are mutually incomprehensible.
> >>
> >> The same can be said about every modern Romance

Language. "Ladin"

> >> is nothing else that a modern Romance belonging to the Alpine
> >> group (with Rheto-Romance and Friulan).
> >
> > Except that, in this case, I think there is a lot in a name!
>
> The same holds for Romanian and Rheto-Romance. I fail to see any
> peculiar implication of language label with respect to a supposed
> special connection with Latin.

I don't think we have any disagreement here. The implications are
more to do with ethnicity than linguistics.

Are there any good explanations of why the adverb for language self-
designation switched from 'Latine' to 'Romanice'?

Richard.