Re: [tied] Nominative: A hybrid view

On Sun, 25 May 2003 21:49:52 +0000, Rob <magwich78@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>>
>> IF the definite article is distinct from demonstratives and object
>> follows verb, THEN the definite article precedes the noun. IF the
>> definite article is distinct from demonstratives and object precedes
>> verb, THEN the definite article follows the noun.
>>
>> (DefArt !~ Dem) & VO => DefArt N; (DefArt !~ Dem) & OV => N DefArt
>>
>>
>> This is consistent with my personal impression that an SOV language
>> like Basque has a postixed article, while SVO and VSO languages like
>> English or Arabic have a prefixed article.
>>
>
>Who says that *so was a definite article? I thought it was an
>anaphoric or demonstrative pronoun.

The definite article was *-z (*-d), the demonstrative pronoun *so
(*to), thus fulfilling the first condition of the universal.

>Besides, if it was encliticized
>to animate nouns in early/pre-PIE, then why would it remain as a
>separate word (i.e. Greek definite article 'ho')?

Because demonstratives are always available for renewed use as
definite articles. The demonstrative *to- exists in Dutch as an
article (de, E. the) and as a demonstrative (deze, die, E. this,
that). In the last 400 years, Afrikaans Dutch has replaced <de> with
<die>, and the demonstrative with <hierdie>, <daardie>.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...