Re: [tied] Was proto-romance a pidgin?

>.>The rules for Romanian are I'd say an order of magnitude less complex

than the rules we

> > need to derive Modern French from Vulgar Latin.
>
> ******GK: The point may have been made before, but I
> gather that what this implies is that Proto-Romance
> and Vulgar Latin (at some stage: which century?) are
> one and the same?******

The phrase "vulgar Latin" is often used loosely, to mean "proto-Romance".
But don't confuse that use with its more precise use, where it must be
distinguished from proto-Romance. It is quite clear what Miguel meant here.

Peter