palatal, nonpalatal

I tried to make up my mind for seeing how should be the difference
between the pronunciation of "ke" in Latin "centum" and for instance the
actually pronunciation of "ke" in "kennen" of the German language.
In the same way, the "ki" of Latin "circum" versus Germanic "Kirche"..
It is said the "ki" in Latin was not palatal , but the "ki" actual
should be palatal.
I even asked some people about this and I am not able to see, to hear
the difference between these "ki/ke" in a modern Language and the
"ki/ke" of Latin language.
Any idea which should be the difference or there is no difference but
just the "i" and "e" after "k" make it to sounds a bit palatal and the
groups "ki/ke" are the same in the modern language of today and ancient
Greek and Latin?

I am aware that "k" followed by /a/,/o/,/u/ in "ka, "ku", "ko" is not a
palatal one. The question is just for "k" when followed by "i" or "e".


alex