Abdullah Konushevci wrote:
>
> ************
> About Rom. ceafa 'neck, occiput' Meyer had thinking that is an
> Albanian loanword (EWAS, p.219). There are opinions that it could be
> borrowed from Turkish kafa 'occipud, head' (Huld, 106) and so on
> To my view, the most reasonable explanation was given by Hamp
> *kepHa, to Lat. caput 'head', because the substitution Alb. q- < PIE
> *k- is regular and normal in Albanian. It could be derived also only
> from cluster kl- (cf. i qartë < Lat. clarus, qaj 'to cry, to weep' <
> Lat. clamare)
> If the Rom. word ceafa is borrowed one, then it preserves much
> oldest form
>
> Konushevci
1)I have a problem with Latin "ca<put" since here is an "e" and not an
"a". Question: why should Latin change an PIE "e" to "a"?
2)Wait a bit. I have a litle trouble here. What is with this funny
semnatic changes here overall in the East of Europe?
Latin "clamare"= to aclame should have given in Rom. "chema"= to call,
in albanian should have given "to cry"? Is there " to cry" or to "to
yell" too?
Latin "clarus" = clear, should have given in Rom. chiar= "even" and in
Albanian " clear" ? And it seems all derivatives in Alb. have the root
"qart" like qartë, qartazi, qartas
Then what about the another one sense, qartë= quarrel; row, wrangle;
squabble whic is in romanian "a certa"?
a propos " to cry" there is "vajton" which is in Rom. "vãita" and in
Germanic "weh & weinen", avestan "vayoi", Latin "vae".
The rom. word "vãita" should come from "vai" which is _not_ given as
from Latin "vae" but to be seen comparative with Latin "vae".
Alex