Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?

On Wed, 26 Feb 2003 18:08:35 -0000, "bmscotttg <BMScott@...>"
<BMScott@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Glen Gordon" <glengordon01@...>
>wrote:
>
>> I assure you. I say ['lArn] with an alveolar flap.
>
>How? That's a serious question. I can easily manage ['lær@...],
>with an alveolar flap, or ['lædn.], with nasal release of the
>[d] making it sound very much like the alveolar flap, but I
>don't see how you get true flapping without at least a bit of
>a vowel in the second syllable.

I was going to ask the same thing. Even in Spanish, where single <r>
is an alveolar flap, there is a vowel (albeit an ultrashort,
subphonemic one) in the pronunciation of a word like carne /karne/
[kar&ne] (T. Navarro Tomás, "Pronunciación española"). Either that,
or, in some dialects, it becomes /kaRne/, with a rolled or fricative
/R/, an alternative that doesn't seem to be availabe in the English
case.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...