--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Michael J Smith
<lookwhoscross-eyednow@...> wrote:
> Does anyone know if it's possible that Indo-Europeanhas a
> common origin with the Uralic and Altaic languages way in the past and
> with Kartvellian or any Caucasian languages? Would love to know what
> anyone thinks- Michael
>
For a short answer, everyone will agree it's possible; many will say
it's probable. Linguists in the latter camp make I.-E., Uralic, and
Altaic members of the NOSTRATIC or EURASIATIC language families.
These differ in other members (Semitic in Nostratic, Eskimo in
Eurasiatic, for example). There are books on these theories, but if
you do a Web search
for these names you'll probably find more than you really want.
Dan Milton