>> I happily believe you voice English /d/ as English /d/ is "voiced" by a
>> native speaker - but that may not mean actual voicing in phonetic terms!
>You are proposing definitional anarchy. "Voice" can and must represent the
same >phenomenon in any language to which the term is applied; otherwise it
is useless as a term.
Good! What matters is straight phonetics. So when you claim access to
privileged information on the basis of having spoken English from childhood,
it is actually no advantage. Your "native-speaker" status is therefore
irrelevant.
>My native speaker intuition tells me that you have completely missed the
point.
You can't have it both ways! Either your judgement is based on
"intuition", in which case what I said earlier applies, or else it is based
on pure phonetics, in which case your native speaker status is no advantage.
Peter