Re: [tied] Re: Balkan Serpents (was: alb. gji (breast))

piotr.gasiorowski@... wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex_lycos" <altamix@...> wrote:
>>
>> I suppose that the last /r/ was weak pronounced if final.And the PIE
>> root should be something like *ster
>
> In PIE, it was *h2ste:r (*h2st(e)r-). But if you start with Latin
> stella (< *h2ster-lah2), you get the correct derivation of the
> Romanian word. No need to indulge in fantasies

Kepp it as fantesies. I don't think they are fantheasies at all.

> Don't be riduculous, Alex. What's Old Latin got to do with it all?

Here you are right. The Old Latin doesn't has anything to do with
"-eaua". to

> <-ella> developed regularly into Rom. -(^)ea. The "u" of the difinite
> form, which you're so curious about, is a phonetic trace of the
> vocalised lateral (l > w, as in Polish, Portuguese dialects, or London
> English): -ealã > -eawã > -ea (but with the glide preserved
> in sa= ndhi
> between the noun and the definite article)
>
> Piotr

Yes sir, rom. "curea" (belt) is from latin "corrigia"(??, I can find
'corrigo'= to make right, to make better , to correct) , and romanian
"cordea" (thiny belt) is from neogreek "kordella".

1)Would you please be so kind to tell me when stopped the "-ella" to
become an "-ea"?
2)Why I am ridiculous here ? Because I try to find out what indeed is
from Latin and what not?