Re: [tied] gerund

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>"
<tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> The English gerund in -ing has a sideform in -in' . I was

wondering:

> does this sideform occur only in those grammatical functions of the
> gerund where it stands for the old present participle (and thus

could

> be claimed to be derived directly from -end-)? My limited non-

native

> intuition can't settle this matter.
> Torsten

I use it for both aspects, and even in normal nouns "You can't get
sumthin for nothin"

Ben