> PIE *ueid, uid
> I have a question here. Is the Prygian pronunciation supposed to have
> been with "v" like in Germanic and Latin or with "u" like in English
> "wait"?
> >From all languages it seems just Greek language changed the "ue-, ui-"
> in an "ei, i"
Don't be misled by the spelling in Latin and Greek. Think of Latin <v> as
being just as much a /w/ as the English <w>. In fact, it was probably an
even lighter sound. In a number of words there is alternation between
vocalic and consonantal forms (e.g. soluit/solvit) and between vowels it was
often elided, especially between similar vowels, and almost regularly
in -ivi-.
For Greek, we now use Attic spelling, which has no symbol for /w/. The old
digamma (= /w/) is sometimes used for texts of other dialects, e.g. Sappho
and Alcaeus, but not always. For the word you mention, in Homer an
unwritten /w/ is often needed to make the line scan. So although Greek does
not write the /w/, it was certainly there early on.
Peter