--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Harald Hammarstrom" <haha2581@...>
wrote:
> Hi!
> Modern Israeli Hebrew
also known as 'Ivrit'
> has
> /h/
> /?/ from 3ayn and /?/
> /x/ from classical /H/ and post-vocalic /k/
> /gh/ from classical /r/ and post-vocalic /g/
Is /G/ (your /gh/) spelt <g> the ancient /g/ 'raphe' (i.e. fricative
for bgdkpt), or is it a recent development? (Background for others:
Ivrit drops most of the vocalic schwas and has degeminated, so 'post-
vocalic' has different meanings in Classical Hebrew and Ivrit.
Modern <k> splits into /k/ and /x/ according to the classical
environment, with geminates counting as *not 'post-vocalic'.) I ask
because my sources don't mention it. (I know that /r/ had laryngeal
tendencies in the phonology of Classical Hebrew.)
Richard.