Re: [tied] Re: the glottalic theory

On Thu, 14 Nov 2002, Miguel Carrasquer wrote:

> [...]
> In the labials, the gap (if any) is usually in the voiceless sphere
> ([ph], [p'], [p] missing), while in the velars/uvulars it's usually in
> the voiced sphere ([G], [g] missing).  I see no reason to think it
> would different for pre-glottalized plosives.

I'm not so sure. Ejectives are practically always voiceless, while
implosives are voiced. When I once tried to check up on it, the bible of
the day, the UPSID index, had no record at all of the existence of an
implosive voiced labiovelar anywhere in the world. And under at least one
theory, that is what PIE *gW was now supposed to be. This made the
glottalic theory look pretty bad even on the surface.

Jens