From: tgpedersen
Message: 16721
Date: 2002-11-13
> On Tue, 12 Nov 2002 12:24:13 -0000, "Richard Wordingham"opposition
> <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@..., Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
> >> On Thu, 07 Nov 2002 14:33:09 -0000, "Richard Wordingham"
> >> <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
> >>
> >> Old Welsh and Irish use the spelling <p>, <t>, <c>
> >> for /b/, /d/, /g/, which is nothing strange in a two-way
> >> /t/ = [th] ~ /d/ = [d.] ~ [t] (cf. also English, where initialand
> >> final /d/ are voiceless [d.] ~ [t]).now
> >
> >I'd always understood that the Old Welsh use of <t> for what is
> >post-vocalic /d/ reflected the lenition that created the softso
> >mutation. (I can't explain the reported Irish use.)
>
> The odd thing is that the spelling does not reflect the lenitions,
> we have <t> for what is later t- / -d-, and <d> for what is later d-/
> -dd-. Perhaps this reflects [th-]/[-t-] vs. [d-]/[-D-] (there isYes. Actually written /t/ in Copenhagen is as much affricate as South
> also -tt-, later -t- for aspirated medial [th]).
>
> >
> >Isn't the ultimate [th] North German, presumably the effect of the
> >Low German substrate?
>
> Is it? Is /t/ unaspirated in Southern German?
>
> =======================I took a look at the IE roots you provide in your chapter 14a/b. Of
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...