> On Sat, 09 Nov 2002 10:57:33 -0000, "tgpedersen"stød
> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> >It's true that Swedish tone 1 corresponds by and large to Danish
> >and that the latter is later than the former, but that doesn'tlanguage
> >necessarily mean one evolved into the other. Rather, once a
> >gives up tones, it might begin to use a device to indicate asyllable
> >or mora boundary that needed no further indication when tones wereYou will find stød in Danish like this: -CV?C or -CVR?C but never -C?
> And how is this different from "evolved into"?
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal