Re: crows and the glottalic theory

--- In cybalist@..., Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Sat, 09 Nov 2002 10:57:33 -0000, "tgpedersen"
> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> >It's true that Swedish tone 1 corresponds by and large to Danish

stød

> >and that the latter is later than the former, but that doesn't
> >necessarily mean one evolved into the other. Rather, once a

language

> >gives up tones, it might begin to use a device to indicate a

syllable

> >or mora boundary that needed no further indication when tones were
> >used.
>
> And how is this different from "evolved into"?
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...

You will find stød in Danish like this: -CV?C or -CVR?C but never -C?
VC, as you have in your theory.
It looks like it was the break between tones, not a tone, that
evolved into the stød.

Torsten