From: Miguel Carrasquer
>It's true that Swedish tone 1 corresponds by and large to Danish stødAnd how is this different from "evolved into"?
>and that the latter is later than the former, but that doesn't
>necessarily mean one evolved into the other. Rather, once a language
>gives up tones, it might begin to use a device to indicate a syllable
>or mora boundary that needed no further indication when tones were