Re: [tied] Re: crows and the glottalic theory

On Sat, 09 Nov 2002 10:57:33 -0000, "tgpedersen"
<tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>It's true that Swedish tone 1 corresponds by and large to Danish stød
>and that the latter is later than the former, but that doesn't
>necessarily mean one evolved into the other. Rather, once a language
>gives up tones, it might begin to use a device to indicate a syllable
>or mora boundary that needed no further indication when tones were
>used.

And how is this different from "evolved into"?

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...