From: ana martín martínez
Message: 16452
Date: 2002-10-20
>On Sat, 19 Oct 2002 23:23:48 +0200, ana martín martínezSorry, my problem wasn't the phonetic explanation (I agree), my problem is
><ana_martin2001@...> wrote:
>
> >>Could be Lope a SPanish adaptation of a Catalan Llop (Older Lop ?)?
> >
> >Well, that would be a possible explanation from the phonetic point of
>view,
> >but it seems more dificult to find the reason for that adaptation. So
>that
> >we cannot prove it.
> >
> >Wouldn't it be better to search directly in the oldest sources for this
> >name?
>
>That's what Lapesa does in his article, and as I think I mentioned, the
>common
>form in old texts (XI-XIII cent.) is Lob/Lop (in old Castilian, the
>opposition
>between b and p is neutralized in the Auslaut, just like the opposition
>between
>f and v (e.g. Mío Cid 40 "una ninna de nuef annos")). To see the apocope
>in
>action, it suffices to pick up Mío Cid and read any couple of pages (note
>the
>regular apocope of -o in names like <Albar Fannez> or <rey Alffons>).