On Sat, 19 Oct 2002 23:23:48 +0200, ana martín martínez
<
ana_martin2001@...> wrote:
>>Could be Lope a SPanish adaptation of a Catalan Llop (Older Lop ?)?
>
>Well, that would be a possible explanation from the phonetic point of view,
>but it seems more dificult to find the reason for that adaptation. So that
>we cannot prove it.
>
>Wouldn't it be better to search directly in the oldest sources for this
>name?
That's what Lapesa does in his article, and as I think I mentioned, the common
form in old texts (XI-XIII cent.) is Lob/Lop (in old Castilian, the opposition
between b and p is neutralized in the Auslaut, just like the opposition between
f and v (e.g. Mío Cid 40 "una ninna de nuef annos")). To see the apocope in
action, it suffices to pick up Mío Cid and read any couple of pages (note the
regular apocope of -o in names like <Albar Fannez> or <rey Alffons>).
=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...