Re: [tied] Re: Underlying Circumflex in Greek

I think the adverbs in <-o:s> are contracted. I'm not sure what the latest explanation of their origin is, but they have been analysed as fossilised ablatives (*-o-ed > *-ood > -oo), with a secondary -s. We have contraction also in paîs = páïs < *páwid-s, while the inflections you quote are borrowed from the thematic declension, and therefore count as contracted, historically.

A clear example of "no-contraction circumflex" is the vocative <zeû> < *djeu, with the accent shifted to the word-initial mora as in disyllabic vocatives like <páter>.

Piotr

----- Original Message -----
From: Richard Wordingham paîs
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, October 16, 2002 12:13 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Underlying Circumflex in Greek

Are adverbs in -o:s, e.g. kalô:s from kalós 'beautiful', contractions?

If you reject it, I must scrape the barrel, and offer pâs 'all', paîs 'boy' and podoîn and podôn, genitive dual and plural of poús 'foot'. Monosyllabic 3rd declension nouns generally show the accentual pattern of poús.