--- In cybalist@..., Piotr Gasiorowski <piotr.gasiorowski@...>
wrote:
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Vassil Karloukovski
> To: cybalist@...
> Sent: Monday, October 07, 2002 5:05 PM
> Subject: Re: [tied] Let dogs have their day too
>
>
>
>
> I'm not sure what this statement is supposed to mean. The Turkic
languages, not being IE, are neither satem nor centum. The satem
change took place millennia ago, and <köpek> can't have ebeen
borrowed that early; I don't even think its reconstructible to Proto-
Turkic. The only imaginable reason for the substitution k -> s in
<sobaka> (if it derives from <köbäk> with front vowels) would be that
given by Trubachev (the second palatalisation *k > *c plus an ad hoc
simplification of *c > s), which has nothing to do with the satem
change.
>
> Piotr
This rests on the Turkic peoples not having been anywhere near the
Slavs before the Hun invasions, right?
Torsten