Re: [tied] Let dogs have their day too

--- Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Mon, 7 Oct 2002 08:15:47 -0700 (PDT), george
> knysh <gknysh@...> wrote:
>
> >******GK: I have some additional questions. (1)
> What
> >does the "'" mean in the Sanskrit form "s'vaka"?
>
> It should be on top of the s, and it stands for a
> palatal shibilant (like Polish
> s' or Mandarin x or a short Russian s^c^), from PIE
> *k^. Sanskrit has another
> "retroflex" shibilant (s. with dot below, from PIE
> *s by the RUKI rule), which
> is like Polish sz, Russian s^ or Mandarin sh.
>
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...

******GK: Thanks Miguel. I'll try not to forget these
little things in the future. Pardon the silly
question...******

>
>

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