On Mon, 7 Oct 2002 08:15:47 -0700 (PDT), george knysh <
gknysh@...> wrote:
>******GK: I have some additional questions. (1) What
>does the "'" mean in the Sanskrit form "s'vaka"?
It should be on top of the s, and it stands for a palatal shibilant (like Polish
s' or Mandarin x or a short Russian s^c^), from PIE *k^. Sanskrit has another
"retroflex" shibilant (s. with dot below, from PIE *s by the RUKI rule), which
is like Polish sz, Russian s^ or Mandarin sh.
=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...