From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 15899
Date: 2002-10-03
----- Original Message -----From: P&GSent: Thursday, October 03, 2002 5:01 PMSubject: Re: [tied] *h3 (More deja-vu)>>we have *d > *h1
> >and *h1k > g, which is more readily explained by /?/.
>
> So... maybe *h1 was a voiced glottal stop.
No, it doesn't have to be. The glottalic theory fits neatly here. If the "voiced" consonants of PIE were in fact pre-glottalised, then a combination of ? + voiceless consonant would become very similar to its voiced equivalent. So h1k > g works well. If ....!