From: ravichaudhary2000
Message: 15865
Date: 2002-10-02
>kind of
> The words themselves may not have at that time even reflected any
> early self-name, but might be what neighbors called these people (avery,
> very common occurence in naming.) We don't even know if these werein fact
> names of people, but rather names of places attached to the peoplewho lived
> there. Or references to other features that had nothing to do withthe
> self-name of a people.terms that
>
> The fact is that we do not know that these names were not loose
> flopped about in a whole range of dialects that did not survive orthird or
> fourth languages that were what REALLY created any differencebetween Gaut
> and Gut that may show up in ancient texts. (We do know that this isprecisely
> what happened with the name Volcae > welsh and vlakh.) Or that thenames were
> difference between gaut and gut was not created later on when such
> standardized, > copy of Ptolemy that listed the name as <gautae>.Germanic
> (Interesting here is that if Procopius actually was rendering a
> written spelling (a la Wulfila) with <au>, the transliteration toGreek would
> have been <o>. Wulfila generally transliterated Greek <o>s intoGothic as
> <au>. So in Greek perhaps this would read "gotoi" oreven "gothoi.")
>actually zeats,
> <<<ge:atas> in Beowulf and Widsith>>
> I have a note here that from an H. Bibbs: "The name Geats is
> and the yogh, "z", is pronounced "y" before fronting vowels, so thecorrect
> transcription would be Yeats, which is close enough to Jeats(Jutes) to be
> argued that they are one and the same." I'm as likely to believeH. Bibbs,
> whoever he is, at this point. So I don't find anything here yousay more
> convincing.the "ancient
>
> The odds are that <gaut> and <gut> were often confused among
> writers" and probably among Scandinavians until recent times andnothing