temps (Re: *gwistis)

Miguel Carrasquer wrote:

> On Wed, 18 Sep 2002 15:01:13 -0000, "m_iacomi" <m_iacomi@...> wrote:
>
> >French "g" in spelling is due only
> >to Medieval Latin influence on "l'orthographe du Francais": it's a
> >matter of common knowledge in France that many spellings with no
> >phonetical relevance were introduced due to cultivated Latin (see
> >for instance <temps> with an useless final "s", never pronounced).
>
> Bad example. That -s was certainly pronounced, and it still is in
> Catalan temps.

Right, I have been careless: it was not the -s but the -p- which
was never pronounced in French and was reintroduced in spelling
due to the Latin. Do you have an idea when Catalan -p- from <temps>
disappeared from pronunciation?

Regards,
Marius Iacomi