Re: [tied] Re: *gwistis

On Wed, 18 Sep 2002 15:01:13 -0000, "m_iacomi" <m_iacomi@...> wrote:

>French "g" in spelling is due only
>to Medieval Latin influence on "l'orthographe du Francais": it's a
>matter of common knowledge in France that many spellings with no
>phonetical relevance were introduced due to cultivated Latin (see
>for instance <temps> with an useless final "s", never pronounced).

Bad example. That -s was certainly pronounced, and it still is in Catalan
temps.


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...