From: Piotr Gasiorowski
----- Original Message -----From: x99lynx@...Sent: Thursday, August 29, 2002 3:22 AMSubject: [tied] Question re a Germanic Name (Suartuas)In the 6th century, I believe, the Byzantines send one of the Herulians
living in Byzantium to lead a leaderless group of Herulians living north of
the Danube. This is according to Procopius, who gives the fellow's name as
There is a question as to what Suartuas could mean and what it origin may be.
This is one of those circumstances where coeval Indo-European languages of
the dim past may offer alternative explanations.
One explanation given by someone else was:
----"Swerting" looks pretty probable. The "-as" suffix often does in Greek
what it often does in Germanic, i.e. it forms a patronymic adjective. This
makes the _-u-_ rather problematic, but it could easily be epenthetic,
helping to attach the Greek suffix to the Germanic stem.----
This doesn't look right to me. -uas in Greek is rare. there is no need for
a -u- to attach -as to -t- ending (Goth <swart>), at least not in Greek where
-tas is a common occurence.
I'm wondering if the -tuas- is not the Gothic suffix -<th>wa, rendered in
Procopius' Greek. Making a substantive out of Goth. <swaran>, to swear, take
an oath, pledge. But does this violate Verner's Law. I.e., would it be
Swari<th>wa-s (>Suratuas). This assumes that "Herulian" is East Germanic and
just like Gothic. And what about the -s ending? Is it a gender correction?