Re: [tied] barba, farfeche, bãiat

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 14716
Date: 2002-08-28

On Wed, 28 Aug 2002 23:38:59 +0200, alexmoeller@... wrote:

>On Wed, 28 Aug 2002 20:10:50 +0200, alexmoeller@...
>wrote:
>
>The Romanian infinitive (a fi), conjunctive (sã fiu, fii, fie,
>fim, fit,i, fie),
>imperative (fii!, fit,i!) and present ptc. (fiind) of the verb
>"to be" are
>derived from the Latin deponent verb <fieri> "to become"
>(itself derived from
>the same root as the Latin perfect stem of "to be" fu-, PIE
>*bhuH-).
>
>[Moeller] and that means that all the conjugation of the latin
>verb "esse" has nothing to do with romanin " a fi"

No: the Romanian present, imperfect and preterite (the three fundamental tenses)
are derived from the Latin conjugation of esse.

>and same, the rom. verb "a fi" has nothing to do with umbrian
>"fust".Hmm.. and rom. "deveni" which is "become" in this
>language, is coming from fr. "devenir" ( so my dictionary).
>hmmm... hmmm.. that is funny. Is there to accept that the
>rumanians have had no "become"- verb in their language until
>they got that verb from french?That would be unlikely..and
>preatty late.. XVI centuries or so..

That's perfectly acceptable. The Romance languages generally have no verb
corresponding to English "to become". Spanish, for instance, doesn't have such
a verb (you can use <hacerse> "to make oneself" or <volverse> "to turn onself",
but usually other lexical methods exist, e.g. "to become old" = envejecer, "to
become red" = enrojecer, etc.).


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...