From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 14045
Date: 2002-07-17
On Wed, 17 Jul 2002, Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
[On my reconstructions of the type 3sg *dhi-dhéH1-ti, 3pl *dhé-dhH1-n.ti,
subj. 3sg *dhí-dhH1-e-ti - JER]
> A question: why does the accent shift to the reduplication syllable in
> the 3pl. forms (present, perfect [at least judging by Indo-Iranian
> *-r.s] or aorist), while this is not the case in the 1/2 plural, which
> are regularly accented on the ending?
The ablaut of Narten presents, reduplicated structures and subjunctives is
highly recessive. It keeps giving way to the advancements of the normal
structures of unreduplicated injunctive-indicatives. All the evidence we
have (which is little) indicate that the 1./2. pl. had final accent,
irrespective of the presence of reduplication; the 3pl perfect even has
final accent on a zero-grade morpheme which must be an innovation, even if
the form has been established before the breakup of PIE.
Jens