Re: [tied] Re: Why India? CORRECTION

From: Gerry Reinhart-Waller
Message: 13300
Date: 2002-04-17

By "they" I meant the "non-farming" non-PIE communities. 
 
Gerry
----- Original Message -----
From: Gerry Reinhart-Waller
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Tuesday, April 16, 2002 2:43 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

Yet not all PIE communities were farming populations -- what language did they speak? 
 
Gerry
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Tuesday, April 16, 2002 12:08 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

If PIE spread with the earliest Central and North European farming populations, it's success was due neither to anything in the nature of the language, nor to the aggressiveness of its speakers. The farmers did not even have to outnumber or absorb the local pre-Neolithic peoples -- not _at once_, at any rate.
 
Piotr
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: P&G
Sent: Tuesday, April 16, 2002 11:38 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

>I can't see how the Indo-Europeans in general could be credited with
exceptional warlikeness ...

Only because they won.  My real point is that I find it hard to imagine that
the spread of IE languages is due to anything in the nature of the
languages.  Or maybe coping with grammatical gender prepares you to conquer
the world....


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