Re: [tied] Renault (which is the same thing)

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 13153
Date: 2002-04-10

Germanic *ragina- (a strong neuter) meant 'judgement, rule, decree' (cf. Goth. ragin). In ON the plural <regin> or <rögn> (I give the OIcel. forms) was used with the meaning 'the (judgements of) gods' (the Gen. pl. was <ragna>, hence "Ragnarök" = <ragna rök/røkkr> 'the destiny/twilight of gods'). <rögn> and <regin> both derive from the neuter pl. *ragnu/*raginu < *ragino: respectively with and without early syncope (cf. barn 'child' sg., börn pl.). In composition one would expect <ragn-> or <regin-/rægin-> (< *ragina-), but <rögn-> could creep in, as is often the case with pluralia tantum.
 
The dialectal distribution of u-umlaut in Old Norse is a complex affair, but generally we have a west-to-east cline, Old Icelandic using it regularly and Old Swedish only sporadically. In the east it would be possible to come across Ragnvald or Reg(i)nvald, but Rögnvaldr is a distinctly West Norse form.
 
There were about a dozen other names with <ragn-> (Ragnhildr, Ræginmundr [Raymond], Ragnarr, etc.). In by far most of them the variant <ragn-> is used.
 
Piotr
 
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: tarasovass
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Tuesday, April 09, 2002 11:39 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Ragnvalðr or Rögnvalðr?

The last question, just to close the case completely.

The only reason for <a> > <o,> mutation I'm aware of (though I
definitely feel there are others) is u-umlaut. This would point to
something like *Ragunwaldaz as an archetype (with the meaning like
'gods' rule'?). If so, was umlaut lost or have failed in eastern
Norse (= later Old Swedish)?

In other words,
1. What would be the etymology for _Ro,gnvaldr_/_Ragnvaldr_?
2. Why can we safely assume _Ragnvaldr_ for eastern Norse while
_Ro,gnvaldr_ seemes to be a standard western (Icelandic) form?