Re: [tied] Re: Post-Gothic "Getic" fantasies: the source(s)

From: george knysh
Message: 13099
Date: 2002-04-08

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@..., george knysh <gknysh@...>
> > Therefore, unless and until new evidence emerges,
> the
> > equation Goths=Getae should be attributed to
> Jerome,
> > writing in Bethlehem in the very late 4th c. AD.
> >
>(Torsten) I think I will take issue with your "cannot
> anything else" that
> that Jerome made the story up, based on things he
> thought he had
> read. It is not "as simple as that". The really
> simple interpretation
> of Jerome's words is to read what he wrote, namely
> that he read the
> Goths=Getae equation in other writers, which puts
> the "theory" before
> 390 CE.

*****GK: I agree fully that one needs to read what
Jerome wrote. Now what he wrote was not, as you put
that he "read the Goths=Getae equation in other
writers". What he wrote is that "ALL LEARNED MEN IN
THE PAST" allegedly made that equation. Now this is
clearly not the case, independently of Varro and some
others (we don't know what they wrote), since we know
very well that people Jerome undoubtedly considered
"learned men (of) the past", viz., Herodotus, Pliny,
and many others did not make the equation. That being
so we must interpret Jerome to mean that these learned
men talked about the Getae (which they did), and it is
HIS interpretation that by Getae they meant the Goths.
It really is as simple as that Torsten.*******

What Haywards "suggests" can hardly count as
> evidence.
> Torsten

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