> Torsten: >They are indeed very strong reasons, but for what? How
> the lawinvolve
> >of palatals argue against PIE presence in India? Suppose it took
> >place there, after the non-II branches left?
> Something like that could have happened but to prove it would
> a major reworking of the law of palatals and assimilation of thebe
> vowels. So far, no one has thought about this much.
> > I suggested re-introducing Cuny's old proposal
> >that the Ablaut vowel, traditionally rendered e/o/nothing should
> >represented as ä/a/nothing, from which (but after palatalization)As far as I know, no one took up Møller's and Cuny's ideas, except
> >there wouldn't be far to Indo-Iranian's a/a/nothing.
> Where can I find more information about this?